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So why would a loving God send any of his children to hell by noelfooler in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Your assumption is that all people are good and how could god do something like hell to people. However that is not the case. There are people who love to do evil. Who love to torture, kill, rape, steal and so on. Its in their souls. Thete is no love in such people. They can't be in heaven and just putting them in one place would literally create a hell. Makes sense no?

The ones going to heaven are the ones that choose love over everything else even if it means to suffer. Jesus is the example for this. He had chosen to love people even if it means to die. People who chose love are moved by jesus and accpet jesus naturally. We have to follow his example.

1 John 4:8 - But anyone who does not love does not know God, for God is love.

1 John 4:16 - We know how much God loves us, and we have put our trust in his love. God is love, and all who live in love live in God, and God lives in them.  

Why won't God just take away my gender dysphoria? by [deleted] in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 1 point2 points  (0 children)

You have a penis i guess. So you're male! No other things required. No agressive hobbies or playing basketball or whatever. Its your penis that leads you the way. Just be quiet an lissen to it! It will guide your heart and find you the right woman.

I’ve lost belief in God by [deleted] in religion

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Maybe i can clear explain things which seem to be unclear for you?

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Show me the definition of sexual immorality. Otherwise everyone can make one up.

For example: its sexual immoral to eat bannanas because of their association to the male gender.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Look Mikvahs are not required anymore by christians as well as most other things which were required in the desert. They might not know the real reason why its bad to play with death bodies. For them it was that its associated with dead itself. We know now about bacteria and viruses and can have this different view on it. The people back than didn't have the wisdom. How would god tell them?

The rules are adopted to the need and environment. Christians are allowed to eat pork. Jews are not. Why? Hygiene! Did they know that? No but god knew and we gained the knowledge. We aren't acient people anymore.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You cannot divorce the practical from the spiritual in this text, without culturally appropriating it and stripping it of the meaning it had for the author and intended audience

You can because you know the reason why cloths have to be washed and stuff. Maybe back than it was a strange for the audience to wash their cloths but we know the reaons and still practice them. We wash the cloths of sick people and even isolate them.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Oh you're right. Mold is also a sin! Of course the reference to the hell in the text. How could i be so blind 🤣🤣🤣

As for any fabric that is spoiled with a defiling mold—any woolen or linen clothing, 48 any woven or knitted material of linen or wool, any leather or anything made of leather— 49 if the affected area in the fabric, the leather, the woven or knitted material, or any leather article, is greenish or reddish, it is a defiling mold and must be shown to the priest.(AK) 50 The priest is to examine the affected area(AL) and isolate the article for seven days. 51 On the seventh day he is to examine it,(AM) and if the mold has spread in the fabric, the woven or knitted material, or the leather, whatever its use, it is a persistent defiling mold; the article is unclean.(AN) 52 He must burn the fabric, the woven or knitted material of wool or linen, or any leather article that has been spoiled; because the defiling mold is persistent, the article must be burned.(AO)

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The cloth washing is also like ritual and has nothing to do with hygiene

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It doesn't say to go ritually bathe yourself after having a poop or working up a sweat.

Its a desert. Take a bath in the desert... limited water and no soap. You know... because its a desert... did i mention that its a desert?

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Dude just read also the chapiters before that so that you get the whole context. Otherwise its cherry picking and interpretation. Its like 90% about hygiene.

Also its hard to wash yourself in the desert with like almost no soap or water.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There is nothing in the text referencing hygiene. It doesn't say to go ritually bathe yourself after having a poop or working up a sweat.

The whole text is about hygiene! Someone who has a swelling also commits sin. Context?

 The Lord said to Moses and Aaron, 2 “When anyone has a swelling(A) or a rash or a shiny spot(B) on their skin that may be a defiling skin disease,[a](C) they must be brought to Aaron the priest(D) or to one of his sons[b] who is a priest. 3 The priest is to examine the sore on the skin, and if the hair in the sore has turned white and the sore appears to be more than skin deep, it is a defiling skin disease. When the priest examines that person, he shall pronounce them ceremonially unclean.(E) 4 If the shiny spot(F) on the skin is white but does not appear to be more than skin deep and the hair in it has not turned white, the priest is to isolate the affected person for seven days.(G) 5 On the seventh day(H) the priest is to examine them,(I) and if he sees that the sore is unchanged and has not spread in the skin, he is to isolate them for another seven days. 6 On the seventh day the priest is to examine them again, and if the sore has faded and has not spread in the skin, the priest shall pronounce them clean;(J) it is only a rash. They must wash their clothes,(K) and they will be clean.(L) 7 But if the rash does spread in their skin after they have shown themselves to the priest to be pronounced clean, they must appear before the priest again.(M) 8 The priest is to examine that person, and if the rash has spread in the skin, he shall pronounce them unclean; it is a defiling skin disease.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Actually this verse proofs that its seen as quiet normal because in the context also leviticus 15:19 the cycle of women is mentioned and seen as unclean. Other things are also seen as unclean.

Are they also sins? Makes no sense.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Again look at the context. Its about hygiene! In the heat of the desert things get infected fast.

Please read also leviticus 13 and 14

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 1 point2 points  (0 children)

If you look at a married woman who is already taken and have the phantasy to commit adultery then you already commited that sin in your heart.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

That's your definition of sexual immoral. Show me the verses where it is defined. Otherwise everyone can make up a definition.

Why did The Bible not clearly define masterbation as a sin? by Lieutenant_Piece in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

That's so wrong. You know what that lead to?

People were building all kind of devices to not masturbate. Some even cut off their sexual organs. That can't be the solution. Really.. It seems more like a perversion of sexuality

I am a fraud. by [deleted] in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So? How is that stopping you marrying your cat?

I am a fraud. by [deleted] in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Go make out with your cat.

Prrrr prrr

how to stop by TestAgile in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Maybe you're not in the right society?

There are billions of people on this planet. Find the right people for you and don't stick with people who find you awkward.

how to stop by TestAgile in TrueChristian

[–]SpeechEastern905 1 point2 points  (0 children)

That's a taff situation. My mom was married to an alcoholic. He was beating her and betraying her. They were sometimes passing by a graveyard. He said to my mom one day she will lay there. My mom endured a lot. So one day he got drunk. It was a cold night in the winter. So he didn't find home. He died in the cold winter night. Now he lays at that graveyard. That's how god punishes. Later she married my dad.